Home » Archive for 2013

CARA MENGATASI TINTA HITAM TIDAK KELUAR

Pernahkah printer anda mengalami masalah seperti Error, hasil cetak yang tidak sesuai atau malah tinta yang tidak keluar? Saya pernah mengalami salah satu dari masalah tersebut pada Printer Canon MP258, tinta hitam printer saya tidak keluar padahal tintanya masih ada. Hal ini sungguh membuat saya kesal, bagaimana tidak, ketika akan mencetak sesuatu tiba-tiba ada masalah. Saya coba cari solusinya dengan bantuan om Google, ternyata hal seperti nie memang biasa terjadi akibat Printer yang jarang digunakan, apalagi Catridgenya sudah pernah direfill.

Langkah pertama yang saya lakukan adalah membersihkan Kepala Cetak Cartridgenya dengan fasilitas yang ada pada Printer, pembersihan sudah saya lakukan sampe "Pembersihan Tingkat Dalam", Namun tetap aja nggak ada hasilnya. Akhirnya saya menemukan solusi untuk masalah tinta tidak keluar pada Printer Canon MP258, yaitu dengan cara merendam Kepala Cartridge ke dalam air panas dan membersihkan bak (tank) Cartridge tersebut. Awalnya saya sempat ragu karna takut malah makin parah/rusak, tapi dengan modal nekat saya lakukan hal tersebut dan ternyata berhasil. Bagi anda yang masih ragu-ragu sebaiknya tidak mengikuti saran saya ini, namun bagi anda yang ingin mencoba mari silahkan simak langkah-langkahnya seperti di bawah ini.

Lepaskan Cartridge
Buka bagian atas penutup Cartridge dengan cara mencongkelnya memakai obeng minus (-)
Ambil busa yang terdapat dalam Cartridge
Rendam busa dengan air dan bersihkan hingga bersih
Rendam sambil goyang-goyangkan Head Cartridge dengan air hangat selama 15-20 menit (usahakan bagian chip jangan terkena air)
setelah Cartridge selesai direndam, tuangkan sedikit air hangat ke dalam bak (tank) Cartridge sambil dibilas hingga bersih
Lap bagian bak (tank) Cartridge dengan tisu
keringkan busa dan Cartridge dengan panas matahari hingga benar-benar kering
pasangkan kembali Cartridge seperti semula, pakai Lem untuk menyatukan penutup Catridge
isi tinta kira-kira 4ml ke dalam Cartridge dan biarkan meresap hingga 15 menit
pasangkan kembali Cartridge ke Printer
Lakukan proses pembersihan kepala cetak
Lakukan pengetesan, jika masih belum bisa diamkan hingga beberapa jam kemudian coba lagi

Semoga berhasil, jika anda tidak ingin mengalami hal tersebut atau malas melakukan seperti yang di atas, belilah Cartridge yang original setelah tinta sudah habis (Canon selalu menyarankan anda untuk mengganti Cartridge yang sudah habis dengan yang baru agar Printer anda tetap awet).

selamat mencoba,
SEMOGA BERMANFAAT..!!!!

CARA MEMPERBAIKI PRINTER YANG HASILNYA BERGARIS DAN KABUR

Bagaimana cara memperbaiki printer yang hasil printnya bergaris dan kabur. setiap kali mau ngeprint hasilnya selalu bergaris terutama yang bertinta warna, kalau yang hitam masih bagus sedangkan yang bewarna bergaris dan kabur. Bagaimanakah cara memperbaikinya?
Untuk cara memperbaiki hasil printnya yang bergaris dan kabur ada beberapa cara yang dapat dilakukan.

Caranya, lakukan print berulang-ulang, jika masalahnya masih muncul, coba Anda sedot dulu tinta yang sudah di refill trus isi ulang kembali tintanya dan lakukan deep cleaning. Nah..apabila masih juga bergaris dan kabur, ganti denga catridge yang baru.

Masalah hasil print yang bergaris dan kabur bisa juga karena headnya, mungkin akibat jump tinta sehingga berdampak jelek pada tintanya, coba bersihkan head printernya pake pelarut head cleaner untuk melarutkan sisa-sisa tinta yang mampet di dalam headnya, terus pasang kembali jika head sudah terkuras habis. Apabila masih juga tidak bisa, coba ganti headnya. Demikian article Bagaimana cara memperbaiki hasil print bergaris dan kabur. Semoga berhasil!

SEMOGA BERMANFAAT!!!!

PRINTER INFUS NGADAT TINTANYA TIDAK KELUAR

Cara memperbaiki printer Infus ngadat tintanya tidak mau keluar. Kebanyak masalah ini sering dialami oleh printer yang di infus seperti Epson R230, T13, L100, T20E, L200, T11, L800, C90, TX121 dan lainnya. Gejalahnya seperti setiap kali mencetak atau ngeprint, tintanya tidak keluar, padahal tinta didalammya masih cukup banyak, lalu solusi cara mengatasinya bagaimana?

Solusi untuk pertama sekali yang dapat kamu lakukan adalah dengan melakukan Deep Clean pada printer tersebut, sekitar 3 sampai 5 kali agar nozzle pada Catridge printer tersebut itu menjadi lancar. Dan apabila masalah tersebut juga belum dapat teratasi, kemungkin printer tersebut sudah overload, solusinya printer harus di reset ulang.

Kemungkinan juga kasus printer Epson R230 infus ngadat tintanya tidak mau keluar ini disebabkan oleh print head yang konslet. biasanya tintanya bocor dan akan membasahi bagian bawah head yang tedapat kabel flexi penghubung ke mainboard. Solusinya yang dapat kamu lakukan adalah coba angkat cartridge tersebut dan lihat bagian bawahnya, apakah basah atau tidak, untuk memastikannya print head harus kamu buka.

konsletnya dikepala bagian print head akan diikuti dengan rusak nya kable flexi seperti gosong dan memutus fuse di mainboard printer Epson R230 infus kamu. Dan untuk memperbaikinya kamu harus mengganti print head, kabel flexi dan mainboard. Sebagaimana kita ketahui harga dari ketiga benda itu sangatlah tidak ekonomis. Harganya apabila kita total bisa sama dengan sebuah printer baru.

Maka dari itu kita harus benar-benar merawat printer dengan baik sesuai dengan buku petunjuk pemakaian printer tersebut. Dan jika menggunakan printer Epson dengan system infus kamu harus benar-benar dijaga agar jangan sampe bocor serta selang penghubung jangan sampai lepas. Itu saja yang sangat penting

ITU SAJA POSTINGAN DARI SAYA SEMOGA BERMANFAAT.!!!!!!

2- ENetwork Basic Configuration PT Practice SBA 2012

A few things to keep in mind while completing this activity:

1- Do not use the browser Back button or close or reload any Exam windows during the exam.

2- Do not close Packet Tracer when you are done. It will close automatically.

3- Click the Submit Assessment button to submit your work.

Introduction

In this practice Packet Tracer Skills Exam, you will:

design and implement an addressing scheme to meet stated requirements
configure, verify, and troubleshoot connectivity between all devices in the network

Addressing Table

Device	Interface	Address	Subnet Mask	Default Gateway
HQ	Fa0/0	10.10.10.1	255.255.255.192	n/a
HQ	Fa0/1	10.10.10.65	255.255.255.248	n/a
S2	VLAN1	10.10.10.2	255.255.255.192	10.10.10.1
NetAdmin	NIC	10.10.10.62	255.255.255.192	10.10.10.1
H1	NIC	Preconfigured (10.10.10.67)	Preconfigured (255.255.255.248)	Preconfigured (10.10.10.65)

NOTE: The initial network has some errors. To aid in configuring and verifying the devices as well as troubleshooting the existing errors, use a printed version of these instructions to fill in the missing address information in the table during Step 1.

Step 1: Determine the IP Addressing Scheme.

Design an addressing scheme and fill in the Addressing Table based on the following requirements:

a. Subnet the address space 10.10.10.0/24 to provide 40 host addresses for LAN 1 while wasting the least amount of address space.

b. Assign the first available subnet to LAN 1.

c. Assign the lowest (first) host address in this subnet to the Fa0/0 interface on HQ.

d. Assign the second address in this subnet to the VLAN 1 interface on S2.

e. Assign the highest (last) host IP address in this subnet to NetAdmin.

Step 2: Configure HQ.

a. Configure HQ with these basic parameters:

· Use HQ as the router name.

· Use class as the encrypted password for privileged EXEC mode.

· Require password-protected logins for the console line. Use cisco as the password.

· Require password-protected logins for the vty lines. Use cisco as the password.

· Configure the banner message-of-the-day as Unauthorized access is prohibited.

b. Configure the two Fast Ethernet interfaces:

· Configure the router interfaces according to your completed Addressing Table.

· Configure each interface with a description.

c. Close the terminal window after completing the router configuration.

Step 3: Configure S2 and Verify Connectivity.

a. Remove the console connection between NetAdmin and HQ.

b. Connect NetAdmin to the S2 console port.

c. Configure S2 with these basic parameters:

· Use S2 for the switch name.

· Use class as the encrypted password for privileged EXEC mode.

· Require password-protected logins for the console line. Use cisco as the password.

· Require password-protected logins for the vty lines. Use cisco as the password.

· Configure the banner message-of-the-day as Unauthorized access is prohibited.

d. Configure interface VLAN 1.

e. Configure the default gateway.

f. Test that S2 is able to ping the default gateway.

Step 4: Configure and Verify NetAdmin Addressing.

a. Use the IP addressing you determined in Step 1 and configure NetAdmin with the correct addressing.

b. Test that NetAdmin is able to ping the default gateway.

Step 5: Verify and Troubleshoot End-to-End Connectivity.

Verify that NetAdmin is able to ping H1. If the ping fails, locate and correct any errors. For example, make sure H1 is configured correctly with appropriate addressing for the subnet it belongs to.

Packet Tracer image:

Step 2: Configure HQ.

Press RETURN to get started!

Router>enable

Router#configure terminal

Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.

Router(config)#hostname HQ

HQ(config)#enable secret class

HQ(config)#line console 0

HQ(config-line)#password cisco

HQ(config-line)#login

HQ(config-line)#exit

HQ(config)#line vty 0 4

HQ(config-line)#password cisco

HQ(config-line)#login

HQ(config-line)#exit

HQ(config)#banner motd #Unauthorized access is prohibited.#

HQ(config)#interface fastEthernet 0/0

HQ(config-if)#ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.192

HQ(config-if)#description LAN1

HQ(config-if)#no shutdown

HQ(config-if)#

%LINK-5-CHANGED: Interface FastEthernet0/0, changed state to up

%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/0, changed state to up

HQ(config-if)#exit

HQ(config)#interface fastEthernet 0/1

HQ(config-if)#ip address 10.10.10.65 255.255.255.248

HQ(config-if)#description LAN2

HQ(config-if)#no shutdown

HQ(config-if)#

%LINK-5-CHANGED: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up

%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up

HQ(config)#

Step 3: Configure S2 and Verify Connectivity.

Switch>enable

Switch#configure terminal

Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.

Switch(config)#hostname S2

S2(config)#enable secret class

S2(config)#line console 0

S2(config-line)#password cisco

S2(config-line)#login

S2(config-line)#exit

S2(config)#line vty 0 4

S2(config-line)#password cisco

S2(config-line)#login

S2(config-line)#exit

S2(config)#banner motd #Unauthorized access is prohibited.#

S2(config)#interface vlan 1

S2(config-if)#ip address 10.10.10.2 255.255.255.192

S2(config-if)#no shutdown

S2(config-if)#

%LINK-5-CHANGED: Interface Vlan1, changed state to up

%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Vlan1, changed state to up

S2(config-if)#exit

S2(config)#ip default-gateway 10.10.10.1

S2(config)#exit

S2#

%SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by console

S2#ping 10.10.10.1

Type escape sequence to abort.

Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 10.10.10.1, timeout is 2 seconds:

!!!!!

Success rate is 100 percent (5/5), round-trip min/avg/max = 31/34/47 ms

S2#write

Building configuration...

[OK]

S2#

Jangan Lupa Baca jg Final Exam
http://jarkomja.blogspot.com/2013/11/ccna-4-final-exam-answer-ccna-4-final.html

Download

EWAN Chapter 7 CCNA 4 4.0 2012 2013 100%

1.

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?
ip nat pool statement
access-list statement
ip nat inside is on the wrong interface
interface s0/0/2 should be a private IP address
2.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?
defines which addresses can be translated
defines which addresses are allowed into the router
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
3. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?
32
48
64
128
4.

Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology?
0
1
2
3
4
5.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)
10.0.0.125
179.9.8.95
179.9.8.98
179.9.8.101
179.9.8.112
6.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The DHCP server service is not enabled.
The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.
7. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?
8
16
80
128
8. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.
Enter the ipv6 router rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.
Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command. RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.
Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the ipv6 router rip name command.
9.

Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?
It will randomly generate a 64 bit interface ID.
It will assign an address from the pool of IPv6 private addresses to the interface.
It will assign only the registry prefix of the IPv6 Global Unicast address to the interface.
The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.
10. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses the word “overload” at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.
Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.
Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.
PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
11.

Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)
dynamic NAT
NAT with overloading
open port 20
open port 21
open port 23
NAT with port forwarding
12.

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?
The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator.
The DHCP server dynamically assigns the addresses.
The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for static assignment.
The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for dynamic assignment.
13.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?
A user on the inside sees web traffic coming from 192.168.1.3 using port 8080.
The address 172.16.1.1 is translated into an address from the pool beginning with 192.168.1.3.
A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.
A user on the outside must address traffic to port 8080 to reach the address 172.16.1.1.
14.

Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned or renewed by this DHCP server?
1
6
7
8
9
15. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)
It saves public IP addresses.
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.
It increases routing performance.
It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier.
It makes tunneling with IPsec less complicated.
16.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?
10.1.1.1
172.30.20.2
192.168.1.2
255.255.255.255
17.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)
Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.
Traffic from the 209.165.200.0 network will be translated.
Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.
A pool of inside global IP addresses from the 10.1.1.0 network will be used for translation.
External users from the 209.165.200.0 network can reach private addresses on the 10.1.1.0 and 10.1.2.0 networks.
18. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?
NAT overload
static NAT
dynamic NAT
PAT
19.

Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?
10.1.1.2
192.168.0.100
209.165.20.25
any address in the 10.1.1.0 network
20. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?
The supervisor wants to clear any confidential information that may be seen by the technician.
Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.
The translation table may be full and is unable to make new translations until space is available.
Clearing the translations causes the starting configuration to be reread and may correct translation problems that have occurred.
21. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?
Replace the devices on the public network with devices that support IPv6.
Configure RIPng on the border routers of each IPv6 island.
Configure the routers to take advantage of dual-stack technology.
Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.

EWAN Chapter 6 CCNA 4 4.0 2012 2013 100%

1. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
ATM
CHAP
IPsec
IPX
MPLS
PPTP
2. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
accounting
authentication
authorization
data availability
data confidentiality
data integrity
3. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
AES
DES
AH
hash
MPLS
RSA
4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?
Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
Data is flowing downstream.
Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions.
The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.
5. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
use higher RF frequencies
allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less
use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic
6. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
digital certificates
encryption
encapsulation
hashing
passwords
7. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
AH
L2TP
ESP
GRE
PPTP
8. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
digital certificates
ESP
hashing algorithms
smart cards
WPA
9. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
Diffie-Hellman
digital certificate
pre-shared key
RSA signature
10.

Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
a GRE tunnel
a site-to-site VPN
a remote-access VPN
the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection
11. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?
A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS. Security is increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text.
The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.
Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable when supporting a single user environment.
Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup connections using POTS.
12. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
users are on a shared medium
uses RF signal transmission
local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS
user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO
13. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworker’s site?
a WiMAX tower
a one-way multicast satellite
a WiMAX receiver
an access point connected to the company WLAN
14. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
cable
DSL
ISDN
POTS
15. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
channel widths
access method
maximum data rate
modulation techniques
compression techniques
16.

Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary permissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?
Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the edge of the network.
All locations can support VPN connectivity.
17. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies
covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access
connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users
18.

Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection.
The devices must have the VPN client software installed.
The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs.
The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.
19. Which statement describes cable?
Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)
Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.
Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.

EWAN Chapter 4 CCNA 4 4.0 2012 2013 100%

1. Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)
Securing a network against internal threats is a lower priority because company employees represent a low security risk.
Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.
Assuming a company locates its web server outside the firewall and has adequate backups of the web server, no further security measures are needed to protect the web server because no harm can come from it being hacked.
Established network operating systems like UNIX and network protocols like TCP/IP can be used with their default settings because they have no inherent security weaknesses.
Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security policy.
2. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)
Strong network passwords mitigate most DoS attacks.
Worms require human interaction to spread, viruses do not.
Reconnaissance attacks are always electronic in nature, such as ping sweeps or port scans.
A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.
Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.
3. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?
reconnaissance
access
DoS
worm
virus
Trojan horse
4.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the “ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco” statement in the configuration?
to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates
to save bandwidth by compressing the traffic
to enable SSH encryption of traffic
to create an IPsec tunnel
5. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It communicates consensus and defines roles.
It is developed by end users.
It is developed after all security devices have been fully tested.
It defines how to handle security incidents.
It should be encrypted as it contains backups of all important passwords and keys.
6. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?
securing
monitoring
testing
improvement
reconnaissance
7. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)
provide a checklist for the installation of secure servers
describe how the firewall must be configured
document the resources to be protected
identify the security objectives of the organization
identify the specific tasks involved in hardening a router
8. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)
By default, name queries are sent to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255.
DNS name queries require the ip directed-broadcast command to be enabled on the Ethernet interfaces of all routers.
Using the global configuration command ip name-server on one router enables the DNS services on all routers in the network.
The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.
The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers.
9.

Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router. What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?
SDM will automatically invoke the AutoSecure command.
SDM will generate a report that will outline the proper configuration actions to alleviate the security issues.
SDM will create a configuration file that can be copy and pasted into the router to reconfigure the services.
SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security changes.
10. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening e-mail messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?
DoS
DDoS
virus
access
reconnaissance
11. What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)
It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled.
It offers the ability to instantly disable non-essential system processes and services.
It automatically configures the router to work with SDM.
It ensures the greatest compatibility with other devices in your network.
It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.
12. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?
SDM can run only on Cisco 7000 series routers.
SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.
SDM should be used for complex router configurations.
SDM is supported by every version of the Cisco IOS software.
13. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
The “mz” in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS.
The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run.
The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size.
The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.
14.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)
The Cisco IOS file has an invalid checksum.
The TFTP client on the router is corrupt.
The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.
The TFTP server software has not been started.
There is not enough room on the TFTP server for the software.
15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)
ROM monitor
boot ROM
Cisco IOS
direct connection through the console port
network connection through the Ethernet port
network connection through the serial port
16. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL 192.168.10.1?
The password is sent in plain text.
A Telnet session is established with R1.
The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.
The R1 home page is displayed and allows the user to download Cisco IOS images and configuration files.
17.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?
The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP server is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?
Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.
Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration.
Reload the IOS from a TFTP server from ROMMON.
Reconfigure the router using setup mode.
19. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?
Schedule antivirus scans.
Schedule antispyware scans .
Schedule training for all users.
Schedule operating systems updates.
20. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)
Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.
Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.
Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.
Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using theshow flash command.
21.

Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?
The commands filter UDP and TCP traffic coming to the router.
The commands disable any TCP or UDP request sent by the routing protocols.
The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
The commands disable the BOOTP and TFTP server services to prevent security vulnerabilities.
22. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)
The default security settings for modern server and PC operating systems can be trusted to have secure default security settings.
Intrusion prevention systems can log suspicious network activity, but there is no way to counter an attack in progress without user intervention.
Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.
Phishing attacks are best prevented by firewall devices.
Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.

CCNA 4 Chapter 5 2011 V4.0 Answers 100%

1. The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?
The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.
The access list statements are misconfigured.
All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.
No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network.

2. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?
The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.
Both ACLs are applied to the interface.
The network administrator receives an error.
Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.
3. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.
4. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?
Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.
Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction.
Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant message.
In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.
5.

CCNA Exploration 4 Accessing the WAN – Chapter 5 exam

Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?
TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)
An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.
7.

ccna 4 chapter 5 exam answers

Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?
Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.
The access list is applied in the wrong direction.
The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.
The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.
8. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?
the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol
the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination
the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic
the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list
9. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
10. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
close to the source
close to the destination
on an Ethernet port
on a serial port
11. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?
by destination UDP port
by protocol type
by source IP address
by source UDP port
by destination IP address
12. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)
Only named ACLs allow comments.
Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.
Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.
More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.
13.

Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes.
Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes.
Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.
14.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured two access lists on R1. The list inbound on the serial interface is named Serial and the list inbound on the LAN interface is named LAN. What affect will be produced by the access control lists?
PC1 will be able to telnet to PC3.
R3 will not be able to communicate with PC1 and PC3.
PC3 cannot telnet to R3 and cannot communicate with PC1.
PC1 will not be able to telnet to R3 and PC3 will not be able to communicate with PC1.
15. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
All traffic is implicitly denied.
FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.
16. Which statement about standard ACLs is true?
Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.
They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.
They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port.
When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the outbound interface.
17.

ccna 4 chapter 5 exam answers

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?
It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network.
It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.
18. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
packet size
protocol suite
source address
destination address
source router interface
destination router interface
19.

ccna 4 chapter 5

Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.
It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.
It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.
20. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?
blocked in and out of all interfaces
blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces
permitted in and out of all interfaces
blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces
21.

ccna 4 chapter 5 answers

Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?
ISP Fa0/0 outbound
R2 S0/0/1 inbound
R3 Fa0/0 inbound
R3 S0/0/1 outbound
22.

Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.
Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.
Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.
Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.
23. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company. What type of ACL is most appropriate?
dynamic
port-based
reflexive
time-based
24. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?
172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255
172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255
172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255
172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255
25. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)
extended ACL
reflexive ACL
console logging
authentication
Telnet connectivity
user account with a privilege level of 15

Related Posts:

Related Posts:

Related Posts:

Related Posts:

Related Posts:

Related Posts:

Related Posts:

Related Posts: